gill1109 wrote:Xray wrote:.
PS: WE are trying to shoot the subject essay down. Blanks won't do! We need focussed specifics.
Explain to me what is wrong not with Bell's original derivations but with my Theorem 1 in
http://arxiv.org/abs/1207.5103, Section 2.
If you are referring to equation (3),
a quick look suggests here is what is wrong with your theorem:
For N small, your theorem implies that a Probability Pr is greater than or equal to a negative number. Would you, as a stats person, call this a tautology; or nonsense?
For N large, your theorem implies that the probability of a certainty [eg, Pr(1.9999 ≤ 2)] is greater than or equal to near zero. Would you, as a stats person, call this a tautology; or nonsense?
Perhaps you are trying to duplicate the
Bellian and CHSH-style absurdities shown-up in Gordon Watson's essay?
Clearly, you must try harder. Otherwise: What is the relevance of your theorem?
Also: In case my quick look is inaccurate (I'm late for a meeting); or, better please:
Please provide a plot of RHS (3) for 4 < N < 50.
PS: Maybe my hurry here is heading me for trouble, but as I was closing your paper I noticed (5) under the condition N --> infinity and something to do with Vongehr.
Well in (5) it appears that your theorem implies: The Probability of a near impossibility is less than one-half! Would you, as a stats person, call this a tautology; or nonsense?
At least you can take comfort that Bell and CHSH-style results are absurdities of a higher order. (With apologies if I've missed something.)
[quote="gill1109"][quote="Xray"].
PS: WE are trying to shoot the subject essay down. Blanks won't do! We need focussed specifics.
[/quote]
Explain to me what is wrong not with Bell's original derivations but with my Theorem 1 in [url]http://arxiv.org/abs/1207.5103[/url], Section 2.[/quote]
If you are referring to equation (3), [u]a quick look suggests here is what is wrong with your theorem[/u]:
For N small, your theorem implies that a Probability Pr is greater than or equal to a negative number. Would you, as a stats person, call this a tautology; or nonsense?
For N large, your theorem implies that the probability of a certainty [eg, Pr(1.9999 ≤ 2)] is greater than or equal to near zero. Would you, as a stats person, call this a tautology; or nonsense?
Perhaps you are trying to duplicate the [u]Bellian and CHSH-style absurdities[/u] shown-up in Gordon Watson's essay?
Clearly, you must try harder. Otherwise: What is the relevance of your theorem?
Also: In case my quick look is inaccurate (I'm late for a meeting); or, better please: [u]Please provide a plot of RHS (3) for 4 < N < 50[/u].
PS: Maybe my hurry here is heading me for trouble, but as I was closing your paper I noticed (5) under the condition N --> infinity and something to do with Vongehr.
Well in (5) it appears that your theorem implies: The Probability of a near impossibility is less than one-half! Would you, as a stats person, call this a tautology; or nonsense?
[b]At least you can take comfort that Bell and CHSH-style results are absurdities of a higher order[/b]. (With apologies if I've missed something.)