Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

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Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by FrediFizzx » Sun Jun 30, 2019 7:45 am

Mikko wrote:
FrediFizzx wrote:Lack of knowledge doesn't necessarily imply hidden variables. We don't know exactly what happens when a photon interacts with an electron but we know there is a probability factor of the square root of the fine structure constant involved. Particle physics is full of things like this. Most of the probability factors were deduced from scattering experiments.
.

Lack of knowledge means that there is something unknown. This unknown can be called, in absence of better knowledge, a "hidden variable".

Well... what would be the "hidden" variable then when a photon interacts with an electron? And... don't tell me we don't know because it is hidden. Take a stab at what it might be.

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by Mikko » Sun Jun 30, 2019 5:51 am

FrediFizzx wrote:Lack of knowledge doesn't necessarily imply hidden variables. We don't know exactly what happens when a photon interacts with an electron but we know there is a probability factor of the square root of the fine structure constant involved. Particle physics is full of things like this. Most of the probability factors were deduced from scattering experiments.
.

Lack of knowledge means that there is something unknown. This unknown can be called, in absence of better knowledge, a "hidden variable".

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by FrediFizzx » Thu Jun 27, 2019 8:08 am

gill1109 wrote:
FrediFizzx wrote:
gill1109 wrote:It's a great slogan:
FrediFizzx wrote:"Quantum mechanics is about real probability factors for real physical events"!

Real probability factors are what I would call "irreducible randomness".

Hmm... randomness that we can't reduce. I don't think probability factors are always necessarily about randomness. They can simply be about the lack of knowledge about certain processes.
.

Ah ha well that I think is the interesting question.

Lack of knowledge <-> hidden variables
Irreducible randomness <-> something new and shocking to physics and even incompatible with our inborn cognitive abilities (spooky!)

Lack of knowledge doesn't necessarily imply hidden variables. We don't know exactly what happens when a photon interacts with an electron but we know there is a probability factor of the square root of the fine structure constant involved. Particle physics is full of things like this. Most of the probability factors were deduced from scattering experiments.
.

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by gill1109 » Thu Jun 27, 2019 7:56 am

minkwe wrote:
gill1109 wrote:The important thing is, why would Einstein or Bell have thought it physically reasonable to suppose that those four separate real experiments could be thought of, in theory, as four margins of one bigger experiment? EPR gives a careful motivation.

gill1109 wrote:EPR considers four experiments concerning two separate particles: one in which Q and Q are measured. One in which Q and P are measured. One in which P and Q is measured. One in which P and P are measured. They argue from physical principles that those four experiments are strongly connected to one another at the level of individual outcomes. Add symbols a, b for Alice and Bob. Then EPR argue that the four actual possible experiments

"measure Qa, Qb"
"measure Qa, Pb"
"measure Pa, Qb"
"measure Pa, Pb"

are "reflections" of a not-directly observable reality in which

"Qa, Qb, Pa, Pb" all exist and, moreover get observed if any are measured"

You are starting to play word games again. Provide a reference where Einstein considered that "four separate real experiments could be thought of, [b]in theory, as four margins of one bigger experiment". Be careful now, it is not enough to show that Einstein considered four separate experiments!


Can Quantum-Mechanical Description of Physical Reality Be Considered Complete?
A. Einstein, B. Podolsky, and N. Rosen
Phys. Rev. 47, 777 – Published 15 May 1935

https://journals.aps.org/pr/abstract/10 ... Rev.47.777

Thus, by measuring either A [momentum of the first particle] or B [position of the first particle] we are in a position to predict with certainty, and without in any way disturbing the second system, either the value of the quantity P [momentum of the second particle] (that is p_k) or the value of the quantity Q [position of the second particle] (that is q_r). In accordance with our criterion of reality, in the first case we must consider the quantity P as being an element of reality, in the second case the quantity Q is an element of reality.


In my notation, EPR establish the simultaneous existence of values of four variables Qa, Qb, Pa, Pb and show that measuring Q or P on either particle would simply reveal the values which already exist "within the whole system". They don't do this explicitly, only implicitly, by considering the simultaneous measurement of Qa and Qb, and alternatively of the simultaneous measurement of Pa and Pb. But my "extension" of what they did say is direct and trivial and well known (and uncontroversial). No further thinking is required.

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by minkwe » Thu Jun 27, 2019 6:53 am

gill1109 wrote:The important thing is, why would Einstein or Bell have thought it physically reasonable to suppose that those four separate real experiments could be thought of, in theory, as four margins of one bigger experiment? EPR gives a careful motivation.

gill1109 wrote:EPR considers four experiments concerning two separate particles: one in which Q and Q are measured. One in which Q and P are measured. One in which P and Q is measured. One in which P and P are measured. They argue from physical principles that those four experiments are strongly connected to one another at the level of individual outcomes. Add symbols a, b for Alice and Bob. Then EPR argue that the four actual possible experiments

"measure Qa, Qb"
"measure Qa, Pb"
"measure Pa, Qb"
"measure Pa, Pb"

are "reflections" of a not-directly observable reality in which

"Qa, Qb, Pa, Pb" all exist and, moreover get observed if any are measured"

You are starting to play word games again. Provide a reference where Einstein considered that "four separate real experiments could be thought of, [b]in theory, as four margins of one bigger experiment". Be careful now, it is not enough to show that Einstein considered four separate experiments!

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by gill1109 » Thu Jun 27, 2019 4:32 am

Joy Christian wrote:
Heinera wrote:
Joy Christian wrote:
gill1109 wrote:Irreducible randomness <-> something new and shocking to physics and even incompatible with our inborn cognitive abilities (spooky!)

Irreducible randomness <-> unjustified mysticism that has no place in any self-respecting science. Moreover, I have demonstrated it to be entirely unnecessary in fundamental physics.

What is the "coin flip" in your model then?

It is a classic and simplest possible example of reducible randomness. It exhibits epistemic randomness, not an ontological one. It embodies the fundamental determinism of nature.

In Joy's model, all the randomness is determined by which side a fair coin has fallen, which was tossed in advance of doing any measurements at all. The randomness of the measurement outcomes is totally determined by that single hidden outcome, which we don't know in advance: whether the coin fell head or tails. Trouble is, that in that case, if we repeatedly do one measurement on a new pair of "spin half" particles, with Stern-Gerlach devices aligned to a suitable pair of angles, then the experimenters actually observe four different outcomes: (up, up), (up, down), (down, up) and (down, down) and moreover the four probabilities are generally not equal to 0, 1/2 or 1. So no way that each pair of particles had its own fair coin toss determine which of the four possibilities actually determine what happened, by the same deterministic rule.

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by Joy Christian » Thu Jun 27, 2019 2:35 am

Heinera wrote:
Joy Christian wrote:
gill1109 wrote:
Irreducible randomness <-> something new and shocking to physics and even incompatible with our inborn cognitive abilities (spooky!)

Irreducible randomness <-> unjustified mysticism that has no place in any self-respecting science. Moreover, I have demonstrated it to be entirely unnecessary in fundamental physics.

***

What is the "coin flip" in your model then?

It is a classic and simplest possible example of reducible randomness. It exhibits epistemic randomness, not an ontological one. It embodies the fundamental determinism of nature.

***

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by Heinera » Thu Jun 27, 2019 2:05 am

Joy Christian wrote:
gill1109 wrote:
Irreducible randomness <-> something new and shocking to physics and even incompatible with our inborn cognitive abilities (spooky!)

Irreducible randomness <-> unjustified mysticism that has no place in any self-respecting science. Moreover, I have demonstrated it to be entirely unnecessary in fundamental physics.

***

What is the "coin flip" in your model then?

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by Joy Christian » Thu Jun 27, 2019 1:24 am

gill1109 wrote:
Irreducible randomness <-> something new and shocking to physics and even incompatible with our inborn cognitive abilities (spooky!)

Irreducible randomness <-> unjustified mysticism that has no place in any self-respecting science. Moreover, I have demonstrated it to be entirely unnecessary in fundamental physics.

***

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by gill1109 » Wed Jun 26, 2019 11:27 pm

FrediFizzx wrote:
gill1109 wrote:It's a great slogan:
FrediFizzx wrote:"Quantum mechanics is about real probability factors for real physical events"!

Real probability factors are what I would call "irreducible randomness".

Hmm... randomness that we can't reduce. I don't think probability factors are always necessarily about randomness. They can simply be about the lack of knowledge about certain processes.
.

Ah ha well that I think is the interesting question.

Lack of knowledge <-> hidden variables
Irreducible randomness <-> something new and shocking to physics and even incompatible with our inborn cognitive abilities (spooky!)

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by FrediFizzx » Wed Jun 26, 2019 10:01 pm

gill1109 wrote:It's a great slogan:
FrediFizzx wrote:"Quantum mechanics is about real probability factors for real physical events"!

Real probability factors are what I would call "irreducible randomness".

Hmm... randomness that we can't reduce. I don't think probability factors are always necessarily about randomness. They can simply be about the lack of knowledge about certain processes.
.

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by gill1109 » Wed Jun 26, 2019 9:08 pm

minkwe wrote:
gill1109 wrote:I wrote a vague statement here for the sake of brevity but others have written precise mathematical statements, and proven precise mathematical theorems. ... Do you want me to give some references?

Please proceed, remember we are looking for precise mathematical theorems proving that Bell's apples are the same as Quantum oranges. There is a tendency to produce apples when oranges are requested, and oranges when apples are requested. I won't be fooled by that trickery.

The presently “best” theory does not need an interpretation if you follow the philosophy “shut up and calculate”.

Let me answer that question for you: Quantum mechanics is not a theory. It is a mathematical formalism. All the "interpretations" discussion are attempts to develop a theory over the formalism.

Many people believe that the problems of finding a graceful unification of QM and GR are intimately connected to the “interpretation problem” of QM.

I believe the problems have a lot to do with how easy it is for well-meaning physicists to fall into mysticism. GR is a theory but QM is not, so the attempts at unification are misguided. First, a proper theory, with a proper ontology has to be developed, then unification will be easy. Unfortunately, unification will not come from the "main-stream" of Quantum Mechanics.

Many believe they are connected to the Schrödinger cat paradox. Of course, if you are a QBist, then there is no paradox, because everything is in the mind anyway, and all we have is Bayes theorem as the only self-consistent way to update our predictions of our future sensory perceptions. There is no “external reality” in this “interpretation” of QM.

This is all mysticism, including QBism. Besides, you are being unfair to Bayes theorem by linking it so tightly to QBists.

Regarding Boole, I think you are confusing the very well known and basic Boole’s inequality with a simple exercise for the reader somewhere in his huge and not often read book. He gives no solutions to the exercises, there is no instructor’s manual. Not necessary since it is an immediate trivial corollary of the usual “Boole’s inequality”. I think it is a libellous scandal that people should demean J S Bell by supposing that he should have cited an exercise in a 1500 page book from the 19th century, not read by anyone anymore when the inequality in question is just a trivial elementary probability exercise.

Perhaps you have not read Boole carefully. Yet you hold Pitowsky in high regard.

The important thing is, why would Einstein or Bell have thought it physically reasonable to suppose that those four separate real experiments could be thought of, in theory, as four margins of one bigger experiment? EPR gives a careful motivation.

Einstein did no such thing.

But you have no interest in studying what could be the nature of more fundamental (semi-deterministic?) theories which might underlie QM. Just shut up and calculate. QM works so why bother? It’s a valid point of view... but I think a fundamentally unscientific point of view!

As long as you purport to imply what I have interest in, I don't think you have a clue about that. It is better not to assume. In fact, I agree totally that "shut up and calculate it a fundamentally unscientific point of view"! In addition, I also think that suggestions of so-called "fundamental irreducible randomness" belong in the same category. All poppycock.

EPR considers four experiments concerning two separate particles: one in which Q and Q are measured. One in which Q and P are measured. One in which P and Q is measured. One in which P and P are measured. They argue from physical principles that those four experiments are strongly connected to one another at the level of individual outcomes. Add symbols a, b for Alice and Bob. Then EPR argue that the four actual possible experiments

"measure Qa, Qb"
"measure Qa, Pb"
"measure Pa, Qb"
"measure Pa, Pb"

are "reflections" of a not-directly observable reality in which

"Qa, Qb, Pa, Pb" all exist and, moreover get observed if any are measured"

Read some of the QBism work by Chris Fuchs and many others to find out why Qbism is called Qbism. They "immerse" the rules of conventional QM in the de Finetti approach to probability theory in which the laws of probability including Bayes theorem are derived from axioms of rational behaviour of an agent who has to make decisions in the face of uncertainty.

They have an interpretation of probability theory, and then consistently interpret QM from within that point of view.

I agree entirely with your statement "GR is a theory but QM is not, so the attempts at unification are misguided. First, a proper theory, with a proper ontology has to be developed, then unification will be easy. Unfortunately, unification will not come from the "main-stream" of Quantum Mechanics."

I have read the publications of Bell, Boole, Pitowsky and many others very very carefully.

I am not looking for precise mathematical theorems proving that Bell's apples are the same as Quantum oranges. Precise theorems already exist, nobody disagrees with the mathematics, and they do not do what you suggest they do; they do something a little bit more subtle. With all due respect, I humbly suggest that you might be jumping to preconceived conclusions. Are you interested in references?

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by gill1109 » Wed Jun 26, 2019 8:45 pm

FrediFizzx wrote:
minkwe wrote:
gill1109 wrote:The presently “best” theory does not need an interpretation if you follow the philosophy “shut up and calculate”.

Let me answer that question for you: Quantum mechanics is not a theory. It is a mathematical formalism. All the "interpretations" discussion are attempts to develop a theory over the formalism.

Well, I think it becomes a physical theory when you connect the math to physics. The interpretation should be simply, "Quantum mechanics is about real probability factors for real physical events". Then we don't need the "shut up" part. Just the calculate part.
.

I agree, Fred! That's my point of view, too. And we can remove the paradoxes by adopting Slava Belavkin's "eventum mechanics". It seamlessly merges conventional "unitary QM" with the Born rule, making the latter a *consequence*, not an uncomfortable *add-on*.

Eventum mechanics is simply an enhancement of the usual formalism which makes sense, instead of non-sense.

It's a great slogan:
FrediFizzx wrote:"Quantum mechanics is about real probability factors for real physical events"!

Real probability factors are what I would call "irreducible randomness".

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by FrediFizzx » Wed Jun 26, 2019 6:54 pm

minkwe wrote:
gill1109 wrote:The presently “best” theory does not need an interpretation if you follow the philosophy “shut up and calculate”.

Let me answer that question for you: Quantum mechanics is not a theory. It is a mathematical formalism. All the "interpretations" discussion are attempts to develop a theory over the formalism.
...


Well, I think it becomes a physical theory when you connect the math to physics. The interpretation should be simply, "Quantum mechanics is about real probability factors for real physical events". Then we don't need the "shut up" part. Just the calculate part.
.

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by minkwe » Wed Jun 26, 2019 6:24 pm

gill1109 wrote:I wrote a vague statement here for the sake of brevity but others have written precise mathematical statements, and proven precise mathematical theorems. ... Do you want me to give some references?

Please proceed, remember we are looking for precise mathematical theorems proving that Bell's apples are the same as Quantum oranges. There is a tendency to produce apples when oranges are requested, and oranges when apples are requested. I won't be fooled by that trickery.

The presently “best” theory does not need an interpretation if you follow the philosophy “shut up and calculate”.

Let me answer that question for you: Quantum mechanics is not a theory. It is a mathematical formalism. All the "interpretations" discussion are attempts to develop a theory over the formalism.

Many people believe that the problems of finding a graceful unification of QM and GR are intimately connected to the “interpretation problem” of QM.

I believe the problems have alot to do with how easy it is for well-meaning physicists to fall into mysticism. GR is a theory but QM is not, so the attempts at unification are misguided. First a proper theory, with a propery ontology has to be developed, then unifcation will be easy. Unfortunately, unification will not come from the "main-stream" of Quantum Mechanics.

Many believe they are connected to the Schrödinger cat paradox. Of course, if you are a QBist, then there is no paradox, because everything is in the mind anyway, and all we have is Bayes theorem as the only self-consistent way to update our predictions of our future sensory perceptions. There is no “external reality” in this “interpretation” of QM.

This is all mysticism, including QBism. Besides, you are being unfair to Bayes theorem by linking it so tightly to QBists.

Regarding Boole, I think you are confusing the very well known and basic Boole’s inequality with a simple exercise for the reader somewhere in his huge and not often read book. He gives no solutions to the exercises, there is no instructor’s manual. Not necessary since it is an immediate trivial corollary of the usual “Boole’s inequality”. I think it is a libellous scandal that people should demean J S Bell by supposing that he should have cited an exercise in a 1500 page book from the 19th century, not read by anyone anymore, when the inequality in question is just a trivial elementary probability exercise.

Perhaps you have not read Boole carefully. Yet you hold Pitowsky in high regard.

The important thing is, why would Einstein or Bell have thought it physically reasonable to suppose that those four separate real experiments could be thought of, in theory, as four margins of one bigger experiment? EPR gives a careful motivation.

Einstien did no such thing.

But you have no interest in studying what could be the nature of more fundamental (semi-deterministic?) theories which might underlie QM. Just shut up and calculate. QM works so why bother? It’s a valid point of view... but I think a fundamentally unscientific point of view!

As long as you purport to imply what I have interest in, I don't think you have a clue about that. It is better not to assume. In fact, I agree totally that "shut up and calculate it a fundamentally unscientific point of view"! In addition, I also think that suggestions of so-called "fundamental irreducible randomness" belong in the same category. All poppycock.

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by FrediFizzx » Wed Jun 26, 2019 2:01 pm

Joy Christian wrote:***
View PDF on that link.

If anyone finds my statement about Bell and his followers libelous, then they are welcome to sue me.

***

View PDF worked for me.
.

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by Joy Christian » Wed Jun 26, 2019 1:49 pm

***
View PDF on that link.

If anyone finds my statement about Bell and his followers libelous, then they are welcome to sue me.

***

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by gill1109 » Wed Jun 26, 2019 1:45 pm

Joy Christian wrote:A clearer exposition of Boole's inequality is in his Royal Society paper of 1862: https://royalsocietypublishing.org/doi/ ... .1862.0015.

Boole's book was written some ten years before this paper, but it does provide foundations to his inequality, which was formulated some 100 years before Bell's work.

Note that Bell and (at least) his early followers never bothered to give any credit to Boole for the inequality. Ignorance is no excuse, either in a court of law or in science.

The Royal Society link does not link to anything useful, as far as I can see. No pdf. No content. Just an abstract.

I think the statement about Bell and his followers is libellous. But I guess Bell’s heirs won’t be bothered, though. See my responses to Michel who seems to think the same. At least you should be grateful to Itamar Pitowsky (RIP) for this jewel. Seems he was the first quantum foundations guy in a hundred years to dig through Boole’s book. Good for him!

Similarly, Michel’s project-Gutenberg link didn’t work. I guess the Chinese are attacking Western Internet. I’ll ry again tomorrow...

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by gill1109 » Wed Jun 26, 2019 1:34 pm

minkwe wrote:I won't use the word "inspired" because there was no inspiration in what he did. The vague statement that "local realism" cannot reproduce the predictions of "quantum mechanics" simply does not follow from proofs of the inequalities the way you think ... for the reasons I've already explained many times
...
Don't get me started on "interpretations". Why does "the best theory" need interpreting?

I wrote a vague statement here for the sake of brevity but others have written precise mathematical statements, and proven precise mathematical theorems. They are precise by virtue of giving precise formal (abstract) definitions of mathematical objects (or categories) which for convenience one calls “LR” and “QM”. Do you want me to give some references?

The presently “best” theory does not need an interpretation if you follow the philosophy “shut up and calculate”. So you think that Joy Christian’s work is entirely superfluous since it does, according to him, reproduce already existing predictions of QM?

Many people believe that the problems of finding a graceful unification of QM and GR are intimately connected to the “interpretation problem” of QM. Many believe they are connected to the Schrödinger cat paradox. Of course, if you are a QBist, then there is no paradox, because everything is in the mind anyway, and all we have is Bayes theorem as the only self-consistent way to update our predictions of our future sensory perceptions. There is no “external reality” in this “interpretation” of QM.

Regarding Boole, I think you are confusing the very well known and basic Boole’s inequality with a simple exercise for the reader somewhere in his huge and not often read book. He gives no solutions to the exercises, there is no instructor’s manual. Not necessary since it is an immediate trivial corollary of the usual “Boole’s inequality”. I think it is a libellous scandal that people should demean J S Bell by supposing that he should have cited an exercise in a 1500 page book from the 19th century, not read by anyone anymore, when the inequality in question is just a trivial elementary probability exercise. Which moreover has been pointed out hundreds of times by hundreds of other scientists.

The important thing is, why would Einstein or Bell have thought it physically reasonable to suppose that those four separate real experiments could be thought of, in theory, as four margins of one bigger experiment? EPR gives a careful motivation.

But you have no interest in studying what could be the nature of more fundamental (semi-deterministic?) theories which might underlie QM. Just shut up and calculate. QM works so why bother? It’s a valid point of view... but I think a fundamentally unscientific point of view!

Re: Bell's inequality refuted via elementary algebra

Post by Joy Christian » Wed Jun 26, 2019 4:21 am

***
A clearer exposition of Boole's inequality is in his Royal Society paper of 1862: https://royalsocietypublishing.org/doi/ ... .1862.0015.

Boole's book was written some ten years before this paper, but it does provide foundations to his inequality, which was formulated some 100 years before Bell's work.

Note that Bell and (at least) his early followers never bothered to give any credit to Boole for the inequality. Ignorance is no excuse, either in a court of law or in science.

***

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