by **Joy Christian** » Fri Jul 22, 2016 8:46 pm

***

We have tired to explain in this forum many times the confusion the Bell-believers are having. Let me try to explain their confusion once again.

Let me stick to my proposed, classical, macroscopic experiment so hopefully there will be no confusion:

http://libertesphilosophica.info/blog/w ... opExp1.pdfThe four EPR-Bohm type classical experiments that are physically meaningful can be described by the four separate averages

E(a, b) = << A(a)B(b) >> ,

E(a, b' ) = << A(a)B(b' ) >> ,

E(a', b) = << A(a' )B(b) >> ,

and

E(a', b' ) = << A(a' )B(b' ) >> ,

where A and B are equal to +1 or -1.

The corresponding CHSH-correlator is then bounded by 4 (or 2\/2 if you do not neglect the crucial geometrical and topological properties of the physical space):

- 4 < E(a, b) + E(a, b' ) + E(a', b) - E(a', b' ) < + 4 ....................... (1)

But Bell-believers derive their inequalities (or the bound of 2) by discarding the above four actual experiments altogether and replacing them with a completely different, physically entirely meaningless experiment described by the single average

E( a, b, a', b' ) = << A(a)B(b) + A(a)B(b' ) + A(a' )B(b) - A(a' )B(b' ) >> ........................ (2)

Note that this single average has nothing whatsoever to do with the EPR-Bohm experiment. In fact,

it does not pertain to any physically possible experiment at all.Now it is easy to work out that the bound on the above single average is 2 (see, for example, this derivation

http://libertesphilosophica.info/blog/w ... /Fatal.pdf).

But as we have repeatedly stressed, the single average (2) has nothing to do with any physics or with experiment, even if it is mathematically possible to compute.

Now why is this so hard to understand? The single average E( a, b, a', b' ) is physically not the same thing as the sum of averages E(a, b) + E(a, b' ) + E(a', b) - E(a', b' ).

***

***

We have tired to explain in this forum many times the confusion the Bell-believers are having. Let me try to explain their confusion once again.

Let me stick to my proposed, classical, macroscopic experiment so hopefully there will be no confusion: http://libertesphilosophica.info/blog/wp-content/uploads/2016/05/PropExp1.pdf

The four EPR-Bohm type classical experiments that are physically meaningful can be described by the four separate averages

E(a, b) = << A(a)B(b) >> ,

E(a, b' ) = << A(a)B(b' ) >> ,

E(a', b) = << A(a' )B(b) >> ,

and

E(a', b' ) = << A(a' )B(b' ) >> ,

where A and B are equal to +1 or -1.

The corresponding CHSH-correlator is then bounded by 4 (or 2\/2 if you do not neglect the crucial geometrical and topological properties of the physical space):

- 4 < E(a, b) + E(a, b' ) + E(a', b) - E(a', b' ) < + 4 ....................... (1)

But Bell-believers derive their inequalities (or the bound of 2) by discarding the above four actual experiments altogether and replacing them with a completely different, physically entirely meaningless experiment described by the single average

E( a, b, a', b' ) = << A(a)B(b) + A(a)B(b' ) + A(a' )B(b) - A(a' )B(b' ) >> ........................ (2)

Note that this single average has nothing whatsoever to do with the EPR-Bohm experiment. In fact, [color=#FF0000]it does not pertain to any physically possible experiment at all.[/color]

Now it is easy to work out that the bound on the above single average is 2 (see, for example, this derivation http://libertesphilosophica.info/blog/wp-content/uploads/2016/05/Fatal.pdf).

But as we have repeatedly stressed, the single average (2) has nothing to do with any physics or with experiment, even if it is mathematically possible to compute.

Now why is this so hard to understand? The single average E( a, b, a', b' ) is physically not the same thing as the sum of averages E(a, b) + E(a, b' ) + E(a', b) - E(a', b' ).

***