The Wikipedia entry for Bell's Theorem gives,

"If [a hidden-variable theory] is local it will not agree with quantum mechanics, and if it agrees with quantum mechanics it will not be local."

Which is from the book "Speakable and Unspeakable in Quantum Mechanics" page 65 which actually says,

"But if his extension is local it will not agree with quantum mechanics, and if it agrees with quantum mechanics it will not be local. This is what the theorem says."

However, in the paragraph before this statement, Bell gives another description of the so-called theorem.

"

(3)

With these local forms, it is not possible to find functions A and B and a probability distribution which give the correlation (1). This is the theorem."

Correlation (1) is of course the quantum mechanical prediction of -a.b. Now..., someone with proper definitions could possibly make this into a rigorous mathematical theorem. But there not much point in that since Joy has already found local A and B functions that do give the QM correlation. This should really be the end of the debate.

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