This should actually be in a new thread.
Here is the nonsense Bell did in his first paper eq. (2).
Then Bell says,
You have two unspecified functions as a product and all we know is that they are +/-1. So, the product is going to be either +1 or -1. Taking lambda =1 and we will have,
So, you are averaging a bunch of +1's with a bunch of -1's which of course is equal to zero at infinity. Then we have,
There is one way around this dilemma and that is to do what Joy did. So, Bell was wrong because it is possible!
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