Bell inequalities from the incompatibility of experiments:

Foundations of physics and/or philosophy of physics, and in particular, posts on unresolved or controversial issues

Bell inequalities from the incompatibility of experiments:

Postby Joy Christian » Fri Jul 28, 2017 11:03 pm

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There remains much confusion in the physics community regarding the meaning of the so-called experimental "violations" of Bell inequalities. But there shouldn't be.

As is well known, Bell derived his inequalities by considering four incompatible experiments in any possible world, classical or quantum. What I have demonstrated in this paper, however, is that his tacit assumption of compatibility of the manifestly incompatible experiments is the ONLY assumption needed to derive the Bell-CHSH type inequalities. Therefore such inequalities have nothing to do with the issues of locality and realism. Here is a slightly more accurate conclusion from my paper:

To summarize our Corollary, Bell inequalities are usually derived by assuming locality and realism, and therefore
violations of the Bell-CHSH inequality are usually taken to imply violations of either locality or realism, or both. But
we have derived the Bell-CHSH inequality above by assuming only that Bob can measure along the directions b and b′
simultaneously while Alice measures along either a or a′, and likewise Alice can measure along the directions a and a′
simultaneously while Bob measures along either b or b′, without assuming locality. The violations of the Bell-CHSH
inequality therefore simply confirm the impossibility of measuring along b and b′ (or along a and a′ ) simultaneously.

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Joy Christian
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Re: Bell inequalities from the incompatibility of experiment

Postby Joy Christian » Sat Jul 29, 2017 7:19 pm

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Needless to say, the above result is just the first step. The subsequent physical question is: Whether it is possible to understand all quantum correlations in a purely local and realistic manner. Not surprisingly, the answer is in the affirmative, and that is exactly what I have demonstrated recently: viewtopic.php?f=6&t=308#p7666.

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Joy Christian
Research Physicist
 
Posts: 1578
Joined: Wed Feb 05, 2014 3:49 am
Location: Oxford, United Kingdom

Re: Bell inequalities from the incompatibility of experiment

Postby Joy Christian » Wed Aug 16, 2017 4:28 am

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Joy Christian
Research Physicist
 
Posts: 1578
Joined: Wed Feb 05, 2014 3:49 am
Location: Oxford, United Kingdom

Re: Bell inequalities from the incompatibility of experiment

Postby Joy Christian » Sun Sep 10, 2017 10:52 pm

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Imagine a couple, Jack and Jill, who decide to separate while in Kansas City, and travel to the West and East Coasts separately. Jack decides to travel to Los Angeles, while Jill can't make up her mind and might travel to either New York or Miami. So while Jack reaches Los Angeles, Jill might reach either New York or Miami. Now this is a perfectly good example of Einstein's local realism, understandable by anyone with a sound mind. Anyone can understand that there are two possible destinations for the couple. Either Jack reaches Los Angeles and Jill reaches New York, or Jack reaches Los Angeles and Jill reaches Miami. Only a lunatic would say that, no, no, no, local realism dictates that when Jack reaches Los Angeles, Jill reaches New York AND Miami at the same time. Only a lunatic would claim that. And yet, Bell and his followers assume exactly that to derive the upper bound of 2 on the CHSH inequality. How dumb one has to be to not recognize the silly mistake Bell made in 1964?

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Joy Christian
Research Physicist
 
Posts: 1578
Joined: Wed Feb 05, 2014 3:49 am
Location: Oxford, United Kingdom


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