Reconciling Dirac Quantization Condition with no monopoles

Foundations of physics and/or philosophy of physics, and in particular, posts on unresolved or controversial issues

Re: Reconciling Dirac Quantization Condition with no monopol

Postby Yablon » Wed Feb 25, 2015 9:05 pm

FrediFizzx wrote:...There is one thing we are certain of in CE is that k_e/k_m = c^2. ... So for the force of electric charge quantum we have,



and for the force between hypothetical magnetic charge quantums,

Fred

Fred,

Why not just give k_e and k_m the same dimensionality k_e/k_m = 1 and then e and g have the same dimensionality? And then g is just the magnetic charge in the DQC.

Jay
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Re: Reconciling Dirac Quantization Condition with no monopol

Postby FrediFizzx » Thu Feb 26, 2015 12:22 am

Yablon wrote:
FrediFizzx wrote:...There is one thing we are certain of in CE is that k_e/k_m = c^2. ... So for the force of electric charge quantum we have,



and for the force between hypothetical magnetic charge quantums,

Fred

Fred,

Why not just give k_e and k_m the same dimensionality k_e/k_m = 1 and then e and g have the same dimensionality? And then g is just the magnetic charge in the DQC.


Well in H-L units, you still have k_e = 1/4pi = k_m if you do that. But if you set c = 1 then e = g so that is OK. But magnetic charge ends up being,



So magnetic charge, g, does end up with the same dimensions as magnetic flux in that case. And if also, then g, mu and e are all dimensionless but it doesn't mean they are all the same thing.

Fred
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