The proof can be found in this paper by Accardi
http://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/0007005v2.pdfConsider a single pair of particles. Assume that the pair of particles have outcomes at 4 angles a, b, a', b' and that those outcomes are definite even if we do not measure them. And those outcomes can only be one of (+1, -1). Then it follows that
ab + ab′ + a′b′ − a′b ≤ 2We can verify by factorization:
a(b + b′) + a′(b′ − b) ≤ 2As concerns the values (b′, b). There are 4 possibilities. We may have (+1, -1), (-1, +1), (-1, -1) or (+1, +1). For the first two cases, the first of the terms (b + b′), (b′ − b) will be 0 and the second will be 2 or -2. For the other two cases, the first of the terms (b + b′), (b′ − b) will be 2 or -2 and the second will be 0. Which means that the maximum or minimum of the expression will be determined by 2a' XOR -2a. However, a and a' can only have values (+1, -1) which proves that the expression
ab + ab′ + a′b′ − a′b ≤ 2 as a valid inequality for any four values (a, b, a', b') from a single particle pair. This inequality can be extended from the individual cases to averages over multiple particles because the extrema of each term will not be affected by averaging over multiple sets of values with the same extrema, on the condition that all averages of paired-product terms are calculated from the exact same set of particles.
If different sets of particles are used to calculate averages, it is equivalent to using a different particle pair to calculate each paired product for the individual case. For this we would have a situation similar to
a1b1 + a2b2′ + a3′b3′ − a4′b4 Where the numbers represent the particle pair used. In this case we now have 8 different variables each that can have a value of (+1, -1). Let us verify what the upper bound is for this expression.
Each term, being independent from any other term is free to have it's own upper and lower bound. Since the values are each +1 and -1, those will be the upper and lower bound for each paired product. We will have a maximum of 4 if a1b1 = 1, a2b2' = 1, a3b3' = 1 and a4b4' = -1. This violates the original expression for a single set, and proves that the correct inequality is
a1b1 + a2b2′ + a3′b3′ − a4′b4 ≤ 4This can be extended to averages similarly to the previous case.
Clearly the former expression and not this one is the CHSH. Clearly, the correct upper bound for using 4 different sets of particles for measuring the individual terms is 4 not 2.
Therefore Richard Gill is wrong. The reason for the violation as I have claimed already is:
The error which makes *Bell's theorem* false is the mistaken assumption that we can substitute measurement outcomes from a different set of particles for counterfactual outcomes on a single set of particles. It is this assumption that is false. In other words, Bell's inequalities (and the CHSH) are violated because of the error of substituting actual outcomes from a different set of particles for counterfactual outcomes of a single set of particles. (aka, using 4 different sets of particles when the inequality asks for just one)The abstract thought experiment provides clear proof that for a locally realistic simulation, using 4 different sets of particles for counterfactual outcomes (as is done in EPR experiments) violates the inequality even though using the counterfactual outcomes directly (a single set of particles, as was assumed in the derivation of the CHSH) does not, using exactly the same simulation, not even a repeat.
Therefore the assumption that we can substitute measurement outcomes from a different set of particles for counterfactual outcomes on a single set of particles is False! And the claim that the CHSH is based on 4 different sets of particles is false! QED.