minkwe wrote:Sorry, I do not see a good faith effort on your part to discuss these issues, that is why I can infer motives. When presented with a clear argument, you bob and weave and avoid the issue. That speaks to motive. Yet you are the first to accuse other of not knowing how to relate mathematics to physics. Why do you find the need to spread BS when ever you get stuck in an argument and don't know what to say. That is your MO. You don't have to engage but when you do, be honest and straight-forward, don't pretend to be arguing and then introduce all kinds of irrelevant rabbit trails. Don't say things about other people's work when you have not studied them. I am free to judge your actions as you are of mine. But I do not yet see a gentleman on the other side with whom to have a CLEAR discussion of what the issues are with respect to Bell. emph.added
gill1109 wrote:Gordon, your three page vixra pdf starts with:Generalizing Bell 1964:(15) to realizable experiments, CHSH (1969) coined the term “Bell’s theorem”. Since the results of such experiments (eg, see Aspect 2002) contradict Bell’s theorem: at least one step in his supposedly commonsense analysis must be false.
CHSH coined the term "Bell's theorem" but by that term they did not mean the CHSH inequality.
So the first sentence exposes a major misunderstanding of the writer.
The second sentence further confirms that the writer doesn't know what he is writing about.
We had earlier tried your approach of going through your argument step by step and we earlier found out exactly where it derails.
Joy Christian wrote:I disagree with both Gordon Watson and Richard Gill here.
There is no point in being concerned about Bell’s theorem without simultaneous being concerned about both spacetime and the physical space. The concept of local causality is at the heart of both Bell’s theorem and Einstein’s position. What is the point of talking about Bell’s theorem without also talking about local causality?
The strong quantum correlations are observed in nature all the time, in many areas of physics, not only in the EPRB type experiments. They are observed in solid state physics, and they are observed in elementary particle physics. To be sure, they are not subjected to the same scrutiny in these areas as they are in the context of the EPRB experiments. But that does not change the fact that they are observed in Nature, period. This fact cries out for explanation, whether you are a local realist or an adherent of the orthodox quantum ideology.
It is therefore pointless to simply argue that Bell’s theorem is wrong. So what if it is? That still does not explain why we see the strong correlations in Nature.
The only plausible explanation for their existence (at least in my opinion) is that they are properties of the physical space itself. This brings us back to spacetime (of which the physical space is naturally a part), and to the concerns of local causality of Einstein and Bell.
That is the real topic. Not a supposed error in Bell’s paper (which is flawed in my opinion too, but the error in that paper is much more subtle than what Gordon thinks it is).
gill1109 wrote:X-ray, thanks for your careful and honest and frank attempt to get us back on track. You wrote "Take a good look at minkwe's piece and take it on board as a young person's honest but abrupt appraisal - here is what I see between you two." That is indeed how I take Michel: he is very honest and he's doing his best. I'm doing my best to explain to him why I think he is a bit mixed up. He says he writes clearly, but that I "bob and weave". I say that what he writes looks clear but isn't, because he doesn't make important distinctions. Well: maybe I'm older and wiser and know important stuff which might be useful for him, or maybe I'm senile. Too bad. But no excuse for accusations of evil motives.
Now you Xray are doing just the same. I explain that (I think that) Gordon is mixed up, I explain why, and if you accept my good faith, you must believe that I think this is rather important. Instead you call it "propaganda".
So if young people don't understand what the old people say, then the old people are just trotting out "propaganda" or blatantly trying to mislead, by hiding the fact that they are obviously wrong behind a smokescreen of verbiage.
Well: according to the rules of good behaviour on this forum, even if this is what you think, you shouldn't say it.
Get me right: you can say that (you think) I'm wrong. But you should not tell the world what you think are my motives for writing what I write. Always make the "good faith" assumption. Always know that you might be mistaken about almost anything. Live well. Have fun. Science is a collective enterprise.
gill1109 wrote:
Xray I really appreciate your unity attempt. We made yet again a lot more progress.
#15. To be clear: Using our compact notation (see #4 above), here’s an example of the easy corrective power of (11) — ie, of EPRB’s fact. Compare Peres 1995:(6.29)
Aj Bj +Bj Cj +Cj Dj −Dj Aj ≡ ±2(?) [A]
with
−4 ≤ AiBi + Bj Cj +Ck Dk −Dl Al ≤ +4 [B] : (12)
ie, Bell-Peres (with eight subscripted js) and the Bell-CHSH bounds of ±2 are false: exceeded experimentally and theoretically. Our bounds of ±4 are true: and never exceeded. QED.
"I'd say that it would deliver the Bell inequalities."Xray wrote:gill1109 wrote:
Xray I really appreciate your unity attempt. We made yet again a lot more progress.
gill1109 thank you
now you and I and everyone can set an example like this to make a lot more progress
Reference Watson's equation (12) - To ALL - specially laureate minkwe, Gordon Watson, gill1109
Equation (12) has a question mark in it but what if we did the LHS of (12) as a thought experiment - what would you say about (12) then ?
Who knows what excuses they'll invent for Bell's error? In my confident opinion: "No! It is based on sloppy maths!"Xray wrote:
and because LHS of Equation (12) is all over the place in text-books and papers - so is Bell 1964 based on LHS of (12) as a thought experiment?
I answered No - so not applicable to me.Xray wrote:
If the answer is yes - why would they do that ?
Correct! So, in that you do not expect any sensible physicist to test a physically unrealistic thought-experiment in any way (it's unphysical, remember): then they must have thought the maths was correct; independent of ANY thought or critical analysis -- but (no doubt) influenced by their training in quantum mysteries.Xray wrote:
because no actually real experiment could check it could they ?
gill1109 wrote:Now it is a true fact of arithmetic / algebra / logic that if Aj, Bj, Cj, Dj are four elements of {-1, +1} then Aj Bj +Bj Cj +Cj Dj −Dj Aj takes values in {-2, +2} and that both values -2 and +2 do occur.
It is another true fact of arithmetic/ algebra / logic that Ai, Bi, ... Dl, Al are sixteen elements of {-1, +1} then AiBi + Bj Cj +Ck Dk −Dl Al takes values in {-4, -3, ... , +4} and all 9 values do occur
Neither of these statements is "about" experiments, whether real or imaginary. They are statements in combinatorial theory (discrete mathematics, logic, ...).
However I can tell you a thought experiment in which formula [A] could be very relevant and indeed useful. It would concern an EPR-B type experiment in which we imagine Nature choosing a hidden variable lambda and sending it, within two particles, to two measurement stations, where Alice and Bob each independently pick either to choose a setting a or a setting a' (b or b') on some measurement devices. The outcomes of measuring a or a' are thought to be A(a, lambda) and A(a', lambda), respectively, and the outcomes of measuring b or b' are thought to be B(b, lambda) and B(b', lambda) respectively, where A and B are two functions taking values in the set {-1, +1}.
And what is wrong with saying "If Alice chose setting a and Bob chose setting b, then the outcomes they would observe are A and B, while if in fact Alice chose a' she would have observed A' ..."?
Dirac said we should forget all the words, w should not read the sentences, we should just study the formulas. Perhaps it would help if we stopped trying to imagine pictures conjured up in our imagination by long lists of difficult words and instead just remark that with the shorthand A = A(a, lambda), A' = A(a', lambda), B = B(b, lambda), B' = B(b', lambda) then AB - AB' +A'B + A'B' takes values in -2, +2.
Gill1109 wrote:Where does CFD come in? Well forget CFD for just a moment
Gill1109 wrote:Forget about physics for the moment.
Gill1109 wrote:Forget Bell's first paper on Bell's inequality.
Heinera wrote:But let's forget about the challenge.
Gill1109 wrote:I suggest we forget altogether about inequalities. Let's talk instead of the relation between theory and experiment
Gill1109 wrote:Let's forget the word "bound" and the word "inequality". They lead to endless misunderstanding.
Gill1109 wrote:Let's forget about interpretations. Let's discuss the maths.
minkwe wrote:Neither of the statements requires any physical assumptions whatsoever to prove. Therefore their violations have nothing whatsoever to do with any physical reason such as non-realism/non-locality.
Heinera wrote:minkwe wrote:Neither of the statements requires any physical assumptions whatsoever to prove. Therefore their violations have nothing whatsoever to do with any physical reason such as non-realism/non-locality.
The term "local" in "local hidden variable model" (aka a computer simulation) has a perfectly well defined algorithmic meaning independent of any physical reason. It means that the output variable for Alice should not depend, directly or indirectly, on Bob's setting, and vice versa. Whether a model is local or not can thus be deduced by analyzing its code.
I'm not quite certain of what your position actually is here. Do you think it is possible to write a local hidden variable computer simulation with outcomes in {-1, 1} that produces the strong correlations? Or do you mean that it is impossible, but irrelevant to physics? If the former is the case, it is purely a question of mathematics and algorithms, so there is no need to involve any physical reasons. If the latter is the case, I won't get into any argument, since relevance, like beauty, is in the eyes of the beholder.
Xray wrote:Heinera wrote:minkwe wrote:Neither of the statements requires any physical assumptions whatsoever to prove. Therefore their violations have nothing whatsoever to do with any physical reason such as non-realism/non-locality.
The term "local" in "local hidden variable model" (aka a computer simulation) has a perfectly well defined algorithmic meaning independent of any physical reason. It means that the output variable for Alice should not depend, directly or indirectly, on Bob's setting, and vice versa. Whether a model is local or not can thus be deduced by analyzing its code.
I'm not quite certain of what your position actually is here. Do you think it is possible to write a local hidden variable computer simulation with outcomes in {-1, 1} that produces the strong correlations? Or do you mean that it is impossible, but irrelevant to physics? If the former is the case, it is purely a question of mathematics and algorithms, so there is no need to involve any physical reasons. If the latter is the case, I won't get into any argument, since relevance, like beauty, is in the eyes of the beholder.
Heinera, what is the [deleted] relevance of your comment to anything that mikwe said? Or to this thread?
Considering that from the opening post by Watson
(4): Please stay on topic: … no place in this thread for … computer models/simulations … .
Xray
gill1109 wrote:Xray, as has been patiently explained many times, neither Fodje nor Watson appreciate the difference between a mathematical model of reality, or a computer model of reality, and reality itself.
minkwe wrote:Spoken by the person whose only responses to clear mathematical and physical arguments presented by Watson and Fodje are ...
gill1109 wrote:gill1109 wrote:Xray, as has been patiently explained many times, neither Fodje nor Watson appreciate the difference between ...minkwe wrote:Spoken by the person whose only responses to clear mathematical and physical arguments presented by Watson and Fodje are ...
IMHO, as far as those arguments were clear they were clearly incorrect. (But you already know that that is my opinion). Please let's stick to math and physics and not go on and on about persons.
gill1109 wrote:Xray wrote:minkwe wrote:Neither of the statements requires any physical assumptions whatsoever to prove. Therefore their violations have nothing whatsoever to do with any physical reason such as non-realism/non-locality.
Heinera, what is the [deleted] relevance of your comment to anything that mikwe said? Or to this thread?
Considering that from the opening post by Watson
(4): Please stay on topic: … no place in this thread for … computer models/simulations … .
Xray
Xray, as has been patiently explained many times, neither Fodje nor Watson appreciate the difference between a mathematical model of reality, or a computer model of reality, and reality itself. Because Watson doesn't appreciate this difference, he does not understand Bell. Watson's "logic" might be impeccable but since one of his axioms is that apples equal pears, it is irrelevant. Strike a lot of words out of the vocabulary - and lose concepts. It's like "newspeak" in "1984".
Watson's admonishment to stay on topic ("no simulations ...") is a demand to wear the same blinkers which he has on; the ones which narrow the vision so strongly that you can't see you are headed over a cliff.
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