A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Foundations of physics and/or philosophy of physics, and in particular, posts on unresolved or controversial issues

Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Joy Christian » Sun Jul 05, 2015 10:06 am

Jochen wrote:
Joy Christian wrote:There are no zero outcomes either in my theoretical model or in its simulation. They simply do not exist. One cannot detect that which is not there in the first place!

So, what happens in the cases where A(a,e,s) = 0?

You have asked this question several times now, and I have answered it several times. I will answer it one more time.

There are no states (e,s) in S^3 for which A(a,e,s) = 0, for any a. You cannot detect a state that does not exist. You cannot measure that which is not there.
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby minkwe » Sun Jul 05, 2015 10:23 am

Jochen wrote:So, what happens in the cases where A(a,e,s) = 0?


Jochen,
"non-detected outcome" is an oxymoron. How can an outcome exist and not exist at the same time? This is physics, not mathematics. Think about an experiment in which you place a photon detector directly in front of a photon source. An outcome is everything that the detector detects. How could you possibly tell that a particle was emitted but not detected?

The coincidence expectation values calculated experimentally and predicted by QM are

There are no the {0,+}, {0,-}, {+,0}, {-,0}, and {0,0} terms in those expectation values. So why are you so obsessed with those terms when discussing a model that predicts those expectation values? Why should a model which predicts expectations for coincident states care about states which are not coincident. Those terms are completely irrelevant, as far as the model which produces the expectations are concerned. Do you have any actually observed experimental result which contradicts the model?
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Jochen » Sun Jul 05, 2015 10:55 am

minkwe wrote:Please read carefully, this argument has been thoroughly debunked in this post viewtopic.php?f=6&t=168&start=200#p4709 and this one viewtopic.php?f=6&t=168&start=160#p4662

What, exactly, do you believe is in those posts that refutes the argument?

minkwe wrote:Again please read carefully. How do you obtain 4 paired correlations which are not independent, from a single two particle system?

You never obtain correlations from a single system; you get a single outcome from a single system. Correlations are statistical quantities, and hence, obtained by re-measuring identically prepared systems.

minkwe wrote:Don't you see that the 4 paired correlations in the CHSH expression are not independent but the QM predictions you now claim are the correct ones for the CHSH are completely independent! Don't you see that what you are now providing could not possibly be the correct correlations for the CHSH scenario!?

They're what QM predicts, and what is experimentally observed. I don't know what's difficult about that.
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Jochen » Sun Jul 05, 2015 10:57 am

Joy Christian wrote:
Jochen wrote:
Joy Christian wrote:There are no zero outcomes either in my theoretical model or in its simulation. They simply do not exist. One cannot detect that which is not there in the first place!

So, what happens in the cases where A(a,e,s) = 0?

You have asked this question several times now, and I have answered it several times. I will answer it one more time.

There are no states (e,s) in S^3 for which A(a,e,s) = 0, for any a. You cannot detect a state that does not exist. You cannot measure that which is not there.

Well, but there are cases such that A(a,e,s) = 0 in the simulation. Why are they there, if nothing physically depends on them? Why not just produce a simulation in which A(a,e,s) = +/-1 for every choice of a, e, s?
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Jochen » Sun Jul 05, 2015 11:02 am

minkwe wrote:Jochen,
"non-detected outcome" is an oxymoron. How can an outcome exist and not exist at the same time? This is physics, not mathematics. Think about an experiment in which you place a photon detector directly in front of a photon source. An outcome is everything that the detector detects. How could you possibly tell that a particle was emitted but not detected?

By using a heralded source, for example a spontaneous parametric down conversion process in which you know that a signal photon has been produced by observing the idler.

The coincidence expectation values calculated experimentally and predicted by QM are

There are no the {0,+}, {0,-}, {+,0}, {-,0}, and {0,0} terms in those expectation values. So why are you so obsessed with those terms when discussing a model that predicts those expectation values?

Because rejecting the right events biases the probability distribution of the remaining ones; a good rejection scheme yields a 'violation' of a Bell inequality simply by means of judiciously picking those events that produce the right statistics. Basically, the idea is that you take a measurement table, which in total produces a CHSH value of 2 (or less), and then cross out certain events such that the CHSH value computed from the remaining events exceeds the LHV bound. This you can always do, but of course it doesn't amount to a refutation of Bell's theorem to produce a model doing this.
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Joy Christian » Sun Jul 05, 2015 11:06 am

Jochen wrote:Well, but there are cases such that A(a,e,s) = 0 in the simulation.

There are no cases in the simulation such that A(a,w) = 0. I don't know which simulation you are talking about. Clearly not this one: http://rpubs.com/jjc/84238.
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Jochen » Sun Jul 05, 2015 11:53 am

Joy Christian wrote:
Jochen wrote:Well, but there are cases such that A(a,e,s) = 0 in the simulation.

There are no cases in the simulation such that A(a,w) = 0. I don't know which simulation you are talking about. Clearly not this one: http://rpubs.com/jjc/84238.

In which quite clearly A(a,e,s) = 0 whenever a.e < f, or not?
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Joy Christian » Sun Jul 05, 2015 12:01 pm

Jochen wrote:
Joy Christian wrote:
Jochen wrote:Well, but there are cases such that A(a,e,s) = 0 in the simulation.

There are no cases in the simulation such that A(a,w) = 0. I don't know which simulation you are talking about. Clearly not this one: http://rpubs.com/jjc/84238.

In which quite clearly A(a,e,s) = 0 whenever a.e < f, or not?

Come on now. This is getting quite tedious. Either you actually read the simulation in full (there are only about 20 crucial lines with English commentary) or you are never going to get this. I am not repeating the answer to your question which I have given at least 10 times by now. Please read the answers I have already given you.
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Heinera » Sun Jul 05, 2015 1:00 pm

Joy Christian wrote:There are no cases in the simulation such that A(a,w) = 0. I don't know which simulation you are talking about. Clearly not this one: http://rpubs.com/jjc/84238.

Image
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Joy Christian » Sun Jul 05, 2015 1:21 pm

Image
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby minkwe » Sun Jul 05, 2015 3:35 pm

Jochen wrote:You never obtain correlations from a single system; you get a single outcome from a single system. Correlations are statistical quantities, and hence, obtained by re-measuring identically prepared systems.

Huh? :shock: Just more double-talk
Jochen wrote:No. I've told you the QM predictions for a two-particle system in the state , and the QM predictions for a four-particle system in the state . These are different systems; they produce different predictions.

You need to eat your own dog food!

Jochen wrote:
minkwe wrote:Don't you see that the 4 paired correlations in the CHSH expression are not independent but the QM predictions you now claim are the correct ones for the CHSH are completely independent! Don't you see that what you are now providing could not possibly be the correct correlations for the CHSH scenario!?

They're what QM predicts, and what is experimentally observed. I don't know what's difficult about that.

Nope. The QM predictions are for independent systems, the measurements are performed on 4 independent disjoint sets of particle pairs. The QM predictions are for
Have you read and understood Adenier's paper yet?

Jochen wrote:
minkwe wrote:Please read carefully, this argument has been thoroughly debunked in this post viewtopic.php?f=6&t=168&start=200#p4709 and this one viewtopic.php?f=6&t=168&start=160#p4662

What, exactly, do you believe is in those posts that refutes the argument?


Please you will have to pay attention this time because I won't explain this one more time.

1. Do you agree that the reason the trivial mathematical inequality
    for 4 measurements measurements on a single particle pair can be extended to averages, is precisely because the prescribed factorization is possible for every row in the series of 4xN outcomes from N particle pairs? In other words, factorization inside the integral, or inside the summation like Bell used in the derivation, means precisely that every occurrence of the set is favorable, which means the sets by themselves are factorable. That is:


    Which is not surprising because we start out with 4 columns of data (the joint PD of outcomes ABCD), then combine them in Pairs CB, CD, AB, AD, then calculate the averages <CB>, <CD>, <AB>, <AD>.

2. Do you agree that the 4 terms in the CHSH,
    are therefore not independent, since they they have been constructed from the same series of outcomes, simply recombined in pairs? In other words, since every two terms shares one column of outcomes there is a cyclic dependency between them. Even if you would randomize each paired sequence after recombining, it should still be possible in principle to rearrange them so that the similarly labelled columns match exactly. That is the A column of the AB pair should match the A column of the AD pair, etc in a cyclical manner, back to the B column of CB matching the B column of AB. Do you agree or disagree?

3. Do you agree that for 4 independent particle pairs , the expression

    is false, and the correct upper bound should be , and by the same logic of the argument in point (1) above, the correct upper bound for averages is

4. You have claimed that the CHSH expression
    ,
    where represents a single set of particle pairs, is statistically equivalent to

    where represent disjoint independent sets of particle pairs. Because according to you,
    and and

5. Do you agree that the expression
    means that for every single individual pair of particles in the series which produced the outcome pair , there is an equivalent pair of particles in the series, such that as the number of particles approaches infinity, it should be possible to find a function , which rearranges the sequence of outcomes to match the sequence of , so that we have the same numbers of +1's and -1's and the same pattern of occurrences of those numbers? Yes or no?

6. Do you agree that from point (4) above (which you believe), it follows that there must also exist other functions
    , , and . Such that after applying the functions, and , where the prime , represents the fact that the sequence of outcomes has been rearranged using the appropriate function? That is, the equivalent sets of outcomes are for all practical purposes "identical". Yes or no?


7. Do you agree that if points (5) and (6) are true, then you can apply the same argument from point (1),
    to measurements performed on 4 disjoint sets of particle pairs , precisely because after rearranging, you will get


    Which can be factorized just like in point (1) to

    since and

8. Do you see now that in order for
    to be true, it must be the case that and . But both and have already been rearranged independently of each other, and since any rearrangement will shuffle both outcomes in the set of pairs any new rearrangement to make agree with will undo the previous rearrangements; the same for and . Therefore for measurements on 4 independent disjoint sets to obey the the inequality, you need several different independent sorting functions to be dependent. In other words, the assumption that 4 independent sets of particle pairs should obey the inequality is a contradiction and your claim in point (4) above fails. The upper bound of 2, depends on the fact that the terms are dependent. It is a contradiction to claim that the same upper bound applies to independent sets
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Jochen » Mon Jul 06, 2015 2:42 am

Joy Christian wrote:Come on now. This is getting quite tedious. Either you actually read the simulation in full (there are only about 20 crucial lines with English commentary) or you are never going to get this. I am not repeating the answer to your question which I have given at least 10 times by now. Please read the answers I have already given you.

I'm sorry to press the point, but I'm just trying to square your insistence that there are no zero outcomes with the fact that the function you use in your simulation to compute the measurement outcomes of Alice is

.

Plotted for the case of and , with Alice's measurement direction a parametrized by an angle , this yields:
Image

Now, this seems to mean that for , Alice's measurement outcome is +1, while for , she gets the -1 outcome. Is this correct?

My question is then what happens if she chooses a measurement setting . There, A(a,e,s) = 0. There are three possibilities:
  1. She does not observe an outcome, i.e. her measurement produces no result. This you claim to not be the case, since you say the detectors are 100% effective.
  2. She can't measure along those directions.
  3. Those cases don't occur, i.e. if Alice chooses her measurement in one of these directions, then the HV can't be and .

Now, your answers so far seem to be in favour of the third option. However, this induces an explicit dependence of the HV on the measurement setting; i.e. what Alice chooses to measure determines the HV-value.

So, what's happening here?
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Joy Christian » Mon Jul 06, 2015 2:51 am

Jochen wrote:So, what's happening here?

What is happening is that you are refusing to leave your flatland. Do your analysis within S^3, defined by the metric {g, t}. Then we may have a basis to talk further.
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Jochen » Mon Jul 06, 2015 6:33 am

minkwe wrote:
Jochen wrote:You never obtain correlations from a single system; you get a single outcome from a single system. Correlations are statistical quantities, and hence, obtained by re-measuring identically prepared systems.

Huh? :shock: Just more double-talk
Jochen wrote:No. I've told you the QM predictions for a two-particle system in the state , and the QM predictions for a four-particle system in the state . These are different systems; they produce different predictions.

You need to eat your own dog food!

I'm not sure what's your issue here if you insist on being cryptic. Are you confused that I speak about statistical predictions for a single system, while insisting that they can't be checked on a single system? If so, this is again just basic QM: since it's a statistical theory, it only makes statistical predictions, i.e. expectation values or probabilities. So, for a system in some state , the most we can say about an observable O is its expectation value , but not what any given measurement will produce (in the general case). We can also not use the same system to make a large enough number of measurements to estimate the statistical properties, since after a measurement of O, the system will be in an eigenstate of O (this is the so-called collapse postulate), and hence, every further measurement will just again yield the same observed value for O. Hence, we need a large number of copies of the system in the state in order to estimate . Does this help?

minkwe wrote:Nope. The QM predictions are for independent systems, the measurements are performed on 4 independent disjoint sets of particle pairs. The QM predictions are for

The predictions of QM are for a system in some given state . In order to check these predictions, since they are of a statistical sort, a large number of systems in that state are needed; the observations made on this ensemble will approximate the QM prediction in the limit of infinitely many measurements.

Have you read and understood Adenier's paper yet?

No matter where your error comes from, it remains an error all the same (and the fact that it's apparently been submitted to J. Math. Phys. but wasn't accepted isn't exactly encouraging either). Make your own argument, but don't expect me to review everything that you could dig up and throw in my way.

minkwe wrote:1. Do you agree that the reason the trivial mathematical inequality
    for 4 measurements measurements on a single particle pair can be extended to averages, is precisely because the prescribed factorization is possible for every row in the series of 4xN outcomes from N particle pairs?

No, the inequality can be extended to averages because no average of a set of values can't be greater than the maximum value of that set. So you have a set of values, all below two, and immediately you know that the average value will also be below two.

minkwe wrote:3. Do you agree that for 4 independent particle pairs , the expression

    is false, and the correct upper bound should be , and by the same logic of the argument in point (1) above, the correct upper bound for averages is

For independent particle pairs, it is indeed the case that they are not bound by the value 2, but from there, it does not follow that hence, . The observed measurement outcomes are drawn from the same probability distribution, and (as you know) from that fact alone the CHSH bound of two follows.

Consider two independent dice, together with the observables T=value on top of the die after a throw, and B=value on the bottom after a throw. For each throw of a single die, then B + T = 7. This also holds in the average: . But for a single throw of both, the value on top of one plus the value at the bottom of the other is not 7, but bounded above by 12. So if you keep throwing both die, and record the value on top of one, and the value at the bottom of the other, does it then follow that ? (Hint: the answer is no.)

Since your argumentation breaks down here, there's no point in adressing the rest. If you understand why , then you'll also understand why .
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Jochen » Mon Jul 06, 2015 6:41 am

Joy Christian wrote:
Jochen wrote:So, what's happening here?

What is happening is that you are refusing to leave your flatland. Do your analysis within S^3, defined by the metric {g, t}. Then we may have a basis to talk further.

So then tell me how to do the analysis of the following case in S^3: First, on Alpha Centauri, four years ago, the source sent out a particle w with and . Today, Alice has two choices for her measurement setting: and . Since you said before that every particle is detected, both must yield some measurement outcome. I can see what happens if she chooses (in both R^3 and S^3, I guess): she will observe the value -1. But what happens if she chooses ?
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Jochen » Mon Jul 06, 2015 7:34 am

minkwe wrote:Have you read and understood Adenier's paper yet?

Even Adenier himself seems to have reconsidered his stance, cf. the very first sentence of the abstract of a later paper:
In spite of many attempts, no local realistic model seems to be able to reproduce EPR-Bell type correlations, unless non ideal detection is allowed.
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Joy Christian » Mon Jul 06, 2015 7:39 am

Jochen wrote:
Joy Christian wrote:
Jochen wrote:So, what's happening here?

What is happening is that you are refusing to leave your flatland. Do your analysis within S^3, defined by the metric {g, t}. Then we may have a basis to talk further.

So then tell me how to do the analysis of the following case in S^3: First, on Alpha Centauri, four years ago, the source sent out a particle w with and . Today, Alice has two choices for her measurement setting: and . Since you said before that every particle is detected, both must yield some measurement outcome. I can see what happens if she chooses (in both R^3 and S^3, I guess): she will observe the value -1. But what happens if she chooses ?

There is no such initial state w = (e,s) in S^3.
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby FrediFizzx » Mon Jul 06, 2015 9:30 am

Jochen wrote:
minkwe wrote:Have you read and understood Adenier's paper yet?

Even Adenier himself seems to have reconsidered his stance, cf. the very first sentence of the abstract of a later paper:
In spite of many attempts, no local realistic model seems to be able to reproduce EPR-Bell type correlations, unless non ideal detection is allowed.

Of course, since Nature is tricking them. Ya gotta think S^3.
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby Jochen » Mon Jul 06, 2015 12:48 pm

Joy Christian wrote:There is no such initial state w = (e,s) in S^3.

So then, and please just give me a straight answer on this: what initial states are there in S^3? Can you just pick out a state?
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Re: A new simulation of the EPR-Bohm correlations

Postby minkwe » Mon Jul 06, 2015 12:50 pm

Jochen,
I will wait for a direct response to every point in my previous post before I respond any further to you.

Re Adenier, it is interesting that your only defense is that "it seems" Adenier changed his mind. Lies, Adenier did not change his mind as you can see by reading an even later paper than the one you referred to:
http://arxiv.org/pdf/0705.1477.pdf

Then your next excuse was that his paper was not published. Lies, Adenier's paper has been published, you didn't look hard enough.

Now please address all the points in my argument and state precisely where you claim the argument fails, if you can. I don't have any more time to waste trying to teach you statistics so please if you think you have a claim against my argument, address every point of it, rather than ignore them with hand-waving.
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