Is there a possibility to dumb down those alleged proofs of ontological randomness to a very low level (me included) of understanding mathematics and physics?
Please help me to correct any errors and improve the following attempt to assess Bell's theorem and experiments.
Assumptions
(A1) A source emits a pair of particles with some opposite pieces of information.
(A2) The pieces of information from (A1) remain constant over time.
(A3) A detector can measure the pieces of information from (A1) via three methods [X, Y and Z], but only one method at a time can be used. Each method measures a specific part of the information.
(A4) There are only two values possible for the measurments from (A3). [+ and -]
Theoretical Results
A source emits pairs of particles as per the above assumptions.
One particle is sent to a detector (Alice) and the other to another detector (Bob).
There are maximum 8 combinations of particles and 9 combinations of measurements:
- Code: Select all
Particles for Results [Alice|Bob] Opposite
Alice and Bob 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 results
X Y Z X Y Z X|X X|Y X|Z Y|X Y|Y Y|Z Z|X Z|Y Z|Z probability
A + + + - - - O O O O O O O O O 1
B + + - - - + O O I O O I I I O 5/9
C + - + - + - O I O I O I O I O 5/9
D + - - - + + O I I I O O I O O 5/9
E - + + + - - O I I I O O I O O 5/9
F - + - + - + O I O I O I O I O 5/9
G - - + + + - O O I O O I I I O 5/9
H - - - + + + O O O O O O O O O 1
From the above we get the following equivalent of Bell's inequality (?):
Probability of getting opposite results at the detectors > 5/9
Actual Results
We consider the case of two entangled electrons, for which their spin is measured at three angles: X=0°, Y=120°, Z=240°.
Probability of getting opposite results at the detectors = 1/2 (?)
Conclusions
This is where I'm stuck, because we also have the following inequality (if we make the theoretical experiment for an equal amount of measurement combinations):
The ratio between the number of opposite results and total number of measurements > 3/9 = 1/3
For me all this seems to be like having a dice with two faces "O" and the other four "I", for which the probability is 1/3 to get "O". Then we make the actual throws and somehow reliably get "O" 1/4 of the time, which is logically possible... ?