Re: Bell inequalities from the incompatibility of experiment
Posted: Sun Nov 18, 2018 12:51 pm
You perform the experiment independently many times and probability should be seen as statistics.
Classicaly you would say that there is a probability distribution among 8 possibilities: measuring A and B, there is some probabibility distribution of C:
Pr(C=1) = Pr(AB1) / (Pr(AB0) + Pr(AB1))
Anyway, classicaly measuring only A and B, there is still some value of C, just unknown ... but this would lead to the inequality, violated in QM formalism.
Hence, C is not only unknown, but needs to be literally undefined to violate the inequality - what does it mean?
Classicaly you would say that there is a probability distribution among 8 possibilities: measuring A and B, there is some probabibility distribution of C:
Pr(C=1) = Pr(AB1) / (Pr(AB0) + Pr(AB1))
Anyway, classicaly measuring only A and B, there is still some value of C, just unknown ... but this would lead to the inequality, violated in QM formalism.
Hence, C is not only unknown, but needs to be literally undefined to violate the inequality - what does it mean?