Why is Bell's theorem not correct?

Foundations of physics and/or philosophy of physics, and in particular, posts on unresolved or controversial issues

Why is Bell's theorem not correct?

Postby Esail » Fri Apr 20, 2018 1:38 am

In his 1964 paper Bell has established a theorem named by him which says: „In a theory in which parameters are added to quantum mechanics to determine the results of individual measurements, without changing the statistical predictions, there must be a mechanism whereby the setting of one measuring device can influence the reading of another instrument, however remote. Moreover, the signal involved must propagate instantaneously, so that such a theory could not be Lorentz invariant.” This is what Einstein called „spooky“.

Bell’s theorem is refuted by presenting a counterexample on https://doi.org/10.1515/phys-2017-0106 It is strictly local in Einstein’s sense and correctly predicts the measurement results in accordance with QM. Measurement results at either side of the experiment are predetermined by a common parameter but the correlation between the results depends on the setting of the polarizers. This is in contrast to counterfactual definiteness assumed by Bell.
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