FrediFizzx wrote:It is really hard to believe that any mathematician would believe such nonsense. The A1 in the first pair is impossible to be the same as the A1 in the second pair, etc. So, you could have,
A1 B1= +1, A1 B2= -1, A2 B1= -1, A2 B2= -1 --> +1+1+1+1 = 4
Bell was wrong, get over it and move on!!!!!
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I agree with @FredFizzx, there is an interesting article by Adenier that I like because it explains this problem very clearly https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0006014. It was published in a Conference Proceedings Foundations of Probability and Physics, chapter Refutation of Bell’s Theorem, pages 29–38. World Scientific, 2001.
However, when the Bell derivation is correctly interpreted that problem does not exist.