The two aspects of time are perceptual and mathematical. We experience time as if we were traveling through it along a sort of timeline, but physics has a different description of time, in which time is relative to the observer, such that past for one observer is future for another.
If observer #1 observes event A as happening in his present moment, he might measure that event as having a certain outcome corresponding to a quantum probability collapse. For observer #2, however, that same event has not yet occurred. It is in his future, and for him, the outcome of the quantum probability collapse remains uncertain.
But if both observers see the same event, then for observer #2, the future quantum event is no longer truly random. Although he does not yet know the outcome, it has already been determined as to what that outcome will be in his future. Therefore, that outcome cannot be truly random, but only pseudorandom for observer #2.
This seems to be contrary to the quantum mechanical definition of quantum probability, which requires uncertainty until the actual moment of the quantum collapse. I understand that for observer #2 that moment has not yet arrived, and cannot be communicated to him before he observes it, but there still seems to be a predetermined outcome for observer #2 of an event that should be inherently uncertain.
How does one resolve the apparent contradiction?
Since I am not a physicist, kindly keep that in mind, please.