Ben6993 wrote:I do not see what the concern is about the CHSH statistic. It seems to allow Joy to win the bet if the balls show the + or - 0.7071 correlation. The correlation could be as low as 0.61 and Joy would still win.
Ben, the issue is actually very simple to see using the coin toss example I presented in the other thread.
1. For a single coin toss (H=+1, T=-1), where A is the result we get and B is the other result we didn't get but could have gotten A + B = 0, and for repeated tosses of a single coin <A> + <B> = 0, and E(A) + E(B) = 0. This is equivalent to the CHSH <= 2 expression. Every time we toss a coin we get one outcome but because the coins are locally realistic, we assume that the other outcome exists counter-factually. This is the usual argument used to derive the CHSH and Bell-like inequalities.
2. Since we can only get one result from a single coin, we may decide to toss two separate coins (of exactly the same type as above). We assume coins are local realistic, and it shouldn't matter if we use the counter-factual result or two actual results where A is the actual result from first coin and B is the actual result from the second coin. Since the coins are the same, we reason that the probability of H and the probability of T are the same for each coin, and it shouldn't matter if we are tossing them singly or in pairs, we naively assume that the expression <A> + <B> = 0 should still be valid for the two coins.
3. It turns out, QM predicts E(A) = E(B) = 0.25, which gives us E(A) + E(B) = 0.5. So we perform an experiment by tossing two coins, and we find that we get <A> + <B> = 0.5 consistently. Confirming the QM result and apparently violating E(A) + E(B) =0 . And we conclude naively that therefore the coins are not locally realistic.
4. But if we examine the two-coin experiment very carefully, we realize that the result from one coin is mutually independent of the results from the second coin. Since H = +1 and T = -1, both A and B can independently reach a maximum of +1 for two separate coins, whereby the maximum value of A + B for a separate coins is 2 not 0. Therefore by tossing a pair of local realistic coins many times E(A) + E(B) <= 2. Which means our two coin experiment with <A> + <B> = 0.5 is fully consistent with local realistic coins. (Note the absence/irrelevance of loopholes)
5. Where was the error made? Re-evaluating the derivation of the E(A) + E(B) = 0 expression we see that the two outcomes A and B are mutually dependent. For a single coin, knowing the A outcome immediately determines the B outcome. If a coin gave H, it definitely did not give T. Whenever A = +1, B = -1 and whenever A = -1, B = +1 for a single coin. Therefore A + B = 0 is the single coin relationship that was carried over to the averages <A> + <B> =0 and expectation values E(A) + E(B) =0 . However this relationship does not apply to A and B from two separate coins because A and B can both be H or T independently of each other, impossible for a single coin.
6. It appears to be a trivial silly error but it is in fact the error in Bell's theorem. You see, QM predictions are for separate sets of particles, experimental results are from separate sets of particles, but the CHSH is derived from a single set of particles. It turns out our specific coins which gave <A> + <B> = 0.5 have a probability distribution of [H,T] of [0.625,0.375]. They produce Heads 62.5% of the time, local realistically. E(A) = E(B) = 0.625*(1) + 0.325*(-1) = 0.25, E(A) + E(B) = 0.5. Yet if we toss one of our coins on glass table and record the up-facing result on column A, and the down facing result on column B, even though <A> = 0.25, just like the result from two coins, the counter-factual result <B> will not be 0.25, it will be -0.25. so that <A> + <B> from a single coin will still never be different from 0. It is now obvious why it is wrong to substitute actual results separate systems for counter-factual results from a single system and expect to get anything meaningful.
7. So how does all of this affect Joy's experiment and the current "almost-bet"? If you perform an experiment in which you toss your single coin on a glass table and can read both results, you still will never violate E(A) + E(B) = 0, ever. Not even by experimental error, it doesn't matter what kind of coin you use. But if you perform an experiment in which you throw a pair of coins each time and read off the two actual results A and B, one from each, based on the kind of coin you use, you can violate it. But we know it is only an apparent violation, since we are using the wrong expression to compare it with. Richard has been insisting that Joy's experiment be performed by using repeated tosses of a single coin and reading from above and below the glass table, he says Joy can win if he violates E(A) + E(B) = 0 + experimental error. Joy has been insisting that he simply wants to demonstrate that his model matches QM, and since QM predicts for separate coins, we only need to do E(A) from one coin and E(B) from another coin, he says he will win if his coins produce <A> = 0.25.